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However, the original question is how the rich get richer which in turn the poor get poorer...that's the question I answered.
Now what different things do the "poor" do. Do they think the same creative thoughts (and actually pursue their ideas?) Do they report to a job, rinse and repeat? Do they take strategic risks? No, playing the lottery does not count. By the way, the lottery is "the Poor Man's Tax".
Sure, any $$ strategically placed can produce new personal wealth. Ok, that is a given. but I believe someone who starts with nothing and creates a marketable widget may be doing so without discretionary income, they are doing the CORRECT things that will return them wealth.
* I guess another question could be: "would the "poor" reap the same return if they duplicated what the "rich" did? If yes, why don't they? If the answer is no, then we should ask, are their legislative hurdles that forcibly keep you from duplicating the prosperous actions.. If there are , we should remove the hurdle, if there is no legislative law, then we should ask "Why are you bitchin"?
Thanks alot!
Don't know about you but I don't have enough "Discretionary" income to invest...but I might have provided the rich use their discretionary income to invest in a business near me and I get a better job there OR they invest in a business idea I have...then just watch me invest THEN!
Laughing........................................................
Edison and Carnegie either had investors or borrowed from a bank...PS...I think the central bankers turned Rockefeller into a mean bastard...something happened...because he didn't start out that way.
This is not an unusual conception. But I have to ask, it you cannot be rich without first having "riches", how do we explain Edison or Carnegie?
And of course, theft no matter which color collar you wear is theft.
How do the "poor" of today's standards compare with, say, the "poor" of Vanderbilt's day?
HEY BERNIE...WE'VE ALREADY RUN OUT OF OTHER PEOPLE'S MONEY!
As for the corrupt rich, those that inherited or stole their riches...they stayed rich and the politicians that made them rich.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hKq43...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Okebm...
Enjoy!
http://www.plusaf.com/homepagepix/_cu...
,,, recently read that over breakfast... no definitive 'answers' but some interesting perspectives.... to wit:
"Mr Milanovic suggests that both are mistaken. Across history, he reckons, inequality has tended to flow in cycles: Kuznets waves. In the pre-industrial period, these waves were governed by Malthusian dynamics: inequality would rise as countries enjoyed a spell of good fortune and high incomes, then fall as war or famine dragged average income back to subsistence level. With industrialisation, the forces creating Kuznets waves changed: to technology, openness and policy (TOP, as he shortens it). In the 19th century technological advance, globalisation and policy shifts all worked together in mutually reinforcing ways to produce dramatic economic change. Workers were reallocated from farms to factories, average incomes and inequality soared and the world became unprecedentedly interconnected. Then a combination of forces, some malign (war and political upheaval) and some benign (increased education) squeezed inequality to the lows of the 1970s."
* What do you really think and why?
- Winston Churchill
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